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Speaking to people persuasively means using words they understand in the way they understand them, not necessarily the way a Bible they don't know or appreciate uses them. Saying that phrase to an atheist is as useful as the extent to which the atheist's disdain for faith is based on their synonymous association of its definition to blind devotion absent evidence, which is how atheism vastly considers it. Has an atheist ever said "I have faith in ________."? When John Lennox got Richard Dawkins to admit in debate that he must have faith his wife loves him absent scientific proof, the vibe of the room made it apparent he had just embarrassed himself horribly, to the point of atheism anathema. And again, the usage was understood to be regarding faith as a trust lacking material proof. It is true that scripture defines faith as you describe. But atheists don't. And they are who the phrase is built for.

There are many English words the Bible translations include which suggest different meanings than modern vernacular takes into account. The word "perfect," for example, is synonymous with "flawless" in typical understanding, but in scripture it instead correlates to "complete." Hence Christ was perfected through suffering in Hebrews.

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